Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 00:30
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why are there so many girls and not enough boys to follow?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Should India conduct another air strike to attack Pakistan over the Pahalgam attack?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do many women in Turkey prefer to date blacks as a lover?
There's no rule.